4A051 CDC Understanding and Retention Evaluation (URE) Practice Exam

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• The four major interrelated systems affecting the development of joint operational plans include the National Security Council System;
• Which document is used to communicate a PDI decision to the member and unit?
• Which factor determines whether a questionable-eligibility patient is treated at a military treatment facility?
• Which scenario demonstrates administrative responsibility being accepted by the Air Force commander at the nearest MTF?
• What does CHCS stand for?
• In ICD-9-CM, a code starting with the letter E indicates which of the following?
• Where is the withdrawal of material from an outpatient medical record to an inpatient record recorded?
• For how many years must inventories be kept in the equipment custodian folder?
• What is not possible for P&A staff in the BLSDM system?
• Which CHCS option makes it simple for the user to add, delete, and cancel schedule timeslots for specific days within any provider's schedule?
• Who appoints the Medical Evaluation Board (MEB) clerk and the Physical Evaluation Board liaison Officer (PEBLO), and by what means is the PEBLO tasked?
• Arteries carry blood
• Once the minutes are approved, who should they be submitted to?
• What is the lean organizational principle primarily focused on?
• Which flight takes care of the manpower and budget for the medical squadron? (alternative wording)
• Which duty is a primary responsibility of the MEB clerk?
• Which color on a military map is used to depict relief features such as elevation?
• Which report contains total expenses, performance factor workloads, and cost per performance factor amounts at the FCC code level?
• What are the three key elements in selecting the appropriate complexity of the E&M codes?
• Which statement is not a DCAO responsibility?
• Adren(o) is the root word meaning
• During the initial distribution phase of the budget process, who is responsible for dispersing funds to the MTFs?
• In aeromedical evacuation terminology, what does RON stand for?
• For an Air Force member with a single inpatient episode in late December and an inpatient records library, retirement would be eligible on which date?
• When is food completely digested?
• Which agency uses line of duty (LOD) determinations to determine eligibility for disability compensation and hospital benefits?
• Before giving the potentially disqualifying information (PDI) letter to the CMA, what should you do?
• Which of the following is NOT a primary intratheater AE aircraft?
• Verbal or telephone orders may be taken by which person?
• What reference provides step-by-step instructions for completing records retirement?
• After completing the inventory listing, which role signs the certification statements to confirm accuracy?
• MFEL stands for what?
• Approximately how many nephrons are in each kidney?
• Medical evacuation (MEDEVAC) typically is associated with what type of aircraft?
• Which type of MTF can have from two to six squadrons?
• Which statement best describes why temporary decertification may be used rather than permanent decertification?
• An individual's medical record information is not released to medical records or scientific organizations when
• Which day, in another wording, are monthly promotion increments posted after AFPC transactions?
• AF Form 1768, Staff Summary Sheet does all of the following, except
• If the Staff Judge Advocate determines an administrative line of duty is more appropriate after AF Form 348 has been completed, to which office is the AF Form 348 returned through MPF/DFMPEP?
• What is a responsibility of the Medical Evaluation Board (MEB) clerk?
• When an abused family member applies for Secretary of the Air Force designee status after the sponsor was discharged from the service, the approval authority is the
• AF Form 618 is associated with which process?
• Which is not an example of a data driven decision?
• Which form documents the dates and times of casualty status notifications made to outside organizations and individuals?
• In order to effectively support the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF), when do functional areas revalidate the tempo band alignment of their respective capability areas and realign forces, if necessary?
• PMRC stands for which of the following?
• What personnel data system (PDS) status code identifies a certified Personnel Reliability Program (PRP) transfer to non-PRP?
• To monitor patient absences, use?
• Which statement is not a function of the BCAC?
• Which gland is the 'master gland'?
• Which document identifies procedures for expeditionary missions and emergency response missions as per DOC and CEMP?
• What four-digit code identifies a particular work center within HQ USAF control on the Unit Manpower Document?
• Whose policy requires you to consider if resource-sharing agreements are in the government’s best interest and support the regional health care plan?
• Level 1 HCPCS are commonly referred to as
• Which system is used to generate allocation notices for deployments?
• According to the descriptions, the dermis
• A patient who is alive when he or she reaches the hospital, but dies prior to admission is considered
• Which of the following is NOT a major exocrine product?
• An air ambulance (AA) is typically conserved for what priority patient?
• What is established to collect operating expenses when two or more work centers share physical space, personnel, and supplies?
• Who assigns the unit's missions and goals in DRRS?
• What level usually has between 500 to 2,000 personnel?
• Which item does not belong on the in-processing checklist?
• Air passes through the nose, then, in sequence, it passes through the
• Under normal conditions, how many board members are required for a medical evaluation board?
• Resource sharing is based on the assumption that costs will be offset by decreased which costs?
• Time card approvers must approve or reject time cards no later than what deadline after the time card period ends?
• How often is the National Defense Authorization Act (NDAA) presented to Congress?
• When unit personnel are processed through the personnel deployment function (PDF), who is responsible for their accountability?
• Which aeromedical evacuation phase handles inter-theater movement within a theater, moving between treatment points outside the combat zone?
• For which of the following would you not create an inpatient record?
• Which document lists the DoD plans for future years?
• Which statement best defines prime vendors?
• In practical terms, prime vendors are expected to deliver supplies within how many hours?
• Use the interward transfer function in CHCS to
• What represents orders, contracts or agreements (negotiated), and obligations of funds?
• Both a notification and a PDI letter are required when the patient is
• The medical control center is also known as which of the following?
• Which AE phase provides airlift for patients between points of treatment outside the combat zone, within a theater of operations?
• For which patient would an Air Force commander at the nearest medical treatment facility accept administrative responsibility?
• What is one of the most important aspects of in processing?
• Which is not a requirement for a Presidential Support Program (PSP) nomination?
• What is the most important customer service skill?
• Who is responsible for assessing the DQMC program and developing the annual statement of assurance for health affairs?
• PEBLO duties: Which statement describes one of the PEBLO duties?
• Which designation describes a form used Air Force-wide or by more than one MAJCOM, FOA, DRU, base or wing?
• Which listing identifies the manpower tasked to deploy in support of specific unit task codes (UTCs)?
• Which type of publication is a nondirective publication?
• Which type of tissue covers the body surface and forms the skin?
• Which office is described as the 'one stop shop' for processing specialty referrals requested by the PCM?
• Which agency uses LOD determinations to evaluate eligibility for compensation for injuries sustained while training for AFROTC?
• What plan is the medical unit commander's plan, establishing procedures for the unit's expeditionary missions identified in the designed operational capability (DOC) statement and emergency response missions identified in the Comprehensive Emergency Management Plan (CEMP)?
• Which act is listed alongside Privacy Act and Freedom of Information Act as a health information compliance requirement?
• Block 40 on AF Form 560 contains which type of information?
• Which of the following is not part of the mission of the special needs identification and assignment coordination (SNIAC) process?
• What is an on-going process that enables senior leadership to evaluate other ways to achieve the best mix of force, requirements, and support within fiscal constraints?
• Which agency handles LOD determinations for disability retirement?
• Who performs periodic reviews of MTF/VA facility resource sharing agreements to ensure VA facilities are network providers?
• Which office is the 'one stop shop' where patients go to process specialty referrals requested by their PCM?
• TRICARE originally referred to the three main plan options, which were TRICARE Prime, and TRICARE Extra.
• SORTS stands for what?
• The minimum identification required on inpatient forms includes the patient's name, family member prefix, sponsor's social security number, register number, and which of the following?
• What action do you take when an incorrect payment is received from an insurance company for copies of medical records?
• Who must approve user accounts before the MRDSS Help Desk creates accounts?
• On a military map, what color illustrates the relief features, such as the vertical elevation of the terrain on a map as seen from above?
• Which of the following is not a valid input for CHCS help access?
• The intent of what form is to provide sufficient information for contracting to issue a contract and for the financial service office (FSO) to set aside funds for the requirement?
• Which organization pays for network care by MTF enrolled patients?
• Which statement about data-driven decisions is true?
• A medical board can be convened to determine an individual's mental competence for pay and records purposes when the member
• What is emergency leave?
• What does the acronym DES stand for?
• In filing, how are fetal monitor strips filed relative to inpatient records?
• Which flight takes care of all the administrative needs for the medical squadron?
• What is the term used when the amount available for obligation is a negative number?
• After you sign the inventory listing, who signs the certification statements signifying that the appointment is accurate?
• In the aeromedical evacuation (AE) system, the originating physician's responsibility for a patient ends when
• What is the step after creating an outline?
• What serves as a working site for all documents, communications, or administrative actions affecting a patient?
• Which macromolecule carries instructions that tell each cell how to perform their particular jobs?
• According to the descriptions, subcutaneous tissue forms which layer of the skin?
• Which DoD standard automated system is used for patient registration, appointment, and scheduling?
• Who completes the remaining blocks of the AF Form 560 once the health care provider has completed his or her entries?
• What is HIPAA’s training requirement?
• What is the fluid that bathes and nourishes the cells of the body tissue called?
• Temporary decertification from a Personnel Reliability Program is used when reliability is in question and the problem is expected to be of what duration?
• The best reason to use data to aid in the decision making process is because it
• A Secretary of the Air Force designee letter must contain the effective date, period covered and
• Which ordering describes the correct CHCS schedule setup process for a new provider: profile, template, then schedule?
• Which flight handles administrative needs for the medical squadron? (alternative wording)
• What level of ongoing support is described for the Wounded Warrior Program?
• The following medical conditions may qualify patients for Medicare before 65 years old, except:
• Where is the MRT label placed on the AF Form 2100 or 2100A?
• Which system provides bedside, point-of-care data capture for physiological devices in acute hospital environments?
• What is the purpose of the AF Form 286 in PRP management?
• What automated self-inspection tool is used by AFMS MTFs?
• Skeletal muscles are sometimes called
• Who can authorize a military treatment facility to conduct a medical evaluation board on an assigned enlisted staff member who has been a disciplinary problem?
• What is awarded only to numbered organizations that perform meritorious service or outstanding achievements that clearly set the unit above and apart from similar units?
• How many years do category Ill codes remain in the CPT Manual?
• Units must update the Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) monthly, no later than what day of the month?
• What is the abbreviation for "both ears"?
• Which award is given specifically to numbered units for meritorious service or outstanding achievements?
• Where can you go to get standardized and current marketing materials for TRICARE?
• Which document is used for interdepartmental purchase requests?
• Which of the following is a trigger event for DES, except one?
• To avoid confusion and duplication, what action should be taken prior to registering a new patient in the Composite Health Care System?
• What type of team are active duty members and their beneficiaries assigned to after the mass medical in-processing briefing?
• The place where bones meet is a
• Which system's objective is to enable improved and streamlined operations planning and execution process?
• The alert notification and recall system used through the Air Force is referred to as which kind of system?
• Which label is used to stamp medical records pertaining to medical affirmative claims?
• Where is allergy information located on the health record jacket?
• Which statement about a hospital-level MTF description is accurate?
• Which system is used for entering, tracking, resolving and reporting on pay and personnel related cases?
• Temporary decertification can be extended in 30-day increments to a maximum of 365 days after initially being made for up to 270 days.
• Which features are depicted in red on most military maps?
• BDQAS is a program used to measure daily data transmission and completion from source data collection systems. Which option below best matches this description?
• On a grid coordinate of 2.5/E.4, the 2 represents the
• What mini-registration task requires the user to possess a Fileman access code?
• Which system is the official AFMS readiness system for expeditionary staffing records?
• What does LOD stand for in this context?
• Who appoints medical evaluation board (MEB) members, and by what means are they tasked?
• The primary USAF aircrafts supporting intratheater aeromedical evacuation are all of the following, except the
• When you in-process a medical record and then generate a computer charge-out, to whom do you deliver the records?
• When must the military treatment facility release a deceased patient's remains to mortuary personnel?
• During the initial distribution phase of funding, which office disperses funds to the medical treatment facilities?
• When is involuntary discharge not mandatory?
• Which number is blocked on the right-hand side of the AF Form 2100A series health record for a sponsor whose social security number is 987-65-4321?
• When using the check-in record option in CHCS, what information is recorded?
• AF Form 1403 is used for which purpose?
• Nonmilitary patients who leave the hospital without authorization are?
• Which of the following is not a consideration for hardship voluntary separation?
• Who is responsible for preparing AF form 788 series folders for filing inpatient documentation?
• Where can you go to get standardized and current marketing materials for TRICARE?
• Which branches are involved in the Integrated Disability Evaluation System (DES)?
• RCC and Wounded Warrior advocates are typically assigned to service members whose medical conditions are expected to last at least 180 days.
• Who's responsibility is it to ensure the DD Form 602 includes all essential patient information?
• Which inpatient record form is used to convey a physician's instructions to nurses?
• Which agency uses line of duty (LOD) determinations to evaluate the eligibility of an Air Force Reserve Officer Training Corps (AFROTC) cadet for compensation for injuries sustained while training?
• The exocrine glands make chemicals that perform specific jobs in the area where they are released. Major exocrine products include the digestive juices, mucus, sweat and which?
• What is an internal management tool used by the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, Unified Commands, and Combat Support Agencies?
• What does not occur during end of year close out?
• Which entity is responsible for periodic reviews to ensure resource-sharing compatibility with VA facilities as network providers?
• About how many times does the heart beat a minute on average throughout a person's lifetime?
• Although assignment limitation codes (ALC)-C are valid indefinitely, how often should the codes be reviewed?
• How are fetal monitor strips filed?
• Who oversees the mission operation of the installation?
• Who will notify you of special administrative requirements your patients may require for the flight?
• Which of the following is not commonly listed as an Air Force achievement award?
• After a breach investigation is complete, who will assess the results of the risk assessment and recommendations in determining whether affected individuals should be notified of the breach?
• Which office specifies the annual review frequency for ALC-C codes?
• When can patient's request for a renewal of their Secretary of the Air Force designee status?
• The Self-Determination Act forms are filed in which section of the outpatient health record?
• Before the Integrated Disability Evaluation System (IDES) process existed, how long would the average medical evaluation board (MEB) take from case initiation to Veteran's Administration (VA) rating?
• The suffix "-penia" indicates what concept?
• How many permissive TDY days may a losing commander approve for eligible members?
• A TSgt is eligible for promotion to MSgt after becoming a 7 level. Which combination of TIG and TAFMS is correct?
• What percentage range best represents the portion of the budget at a military treatment facility allocated for personnel salaries?
• What action does the individual initiate if there is an unjust or unfair practice/procedure?
• LOE not mandatory for an active duty A1C with how many months TAFMS?
• Which system produces various standard reports and supports on-demand, nightly, weekly, or monthly report runs?
• When an active duty sponsor is retiring and they have a dependent over the age of 18, who must fill out the DD Form 2138, Request for Transfer of Outpatient Record, for the dependent?
• When possible, what is the best way to transfer PHI for routine disclosure of information to insurance companies, attorneys or other legitimate users?
• Which role has primary responsibility for privacy and release of information functions in an organization?
• Airmen are not eligible for disability for all of the following reasons, except which one?
• If a sponsor with two children (ages 5 and 8) marries an individual with one child (age 10), the step child's family member prefix (FMP) will be
• Who designated the military training facility (MTF) to conduct a Medical Evaluation Board (MEB) on a general officer?
• Which two options formed part of the original three TRICARE plan options?
• Which department level requires all active duty personnel have to attend in and out processing programs?
• Which organization originates the monthly promotion increment flow?
• What shows the customer how you interpreted the problem and gives them a chance to clear up any confusion so you can take proper action?
• Who can be a voting member on the MEB?
• The designee status applications are generally submitted through which office to HQ USAF/SGMA?
• The AF Form 788 (series), Inpatient Record, is filed using which filing system?
• What opens into the top of the uterus?
• When a military patient is admitted to an MTF, the patient's unit commander should be notified by
• Prime vendors are civilian companies contracted by which agency?
• Which program is intended to mitigate effects on deployments on healthcare access, quality, and scope?
• Which CHCS element must be created first to configure a provider's scheduling in CHCS, before templates and schedules are created?
• In the 10th Revision, Clinical Modification, ICD-10-CM codes are what type of characters?
• Who determines if an injury is actually a medical affirmative claims case?
• Which form is not included among BAS substantiating documents?
• Which form is not part of the BAS substantiating documents?
• What is the maximum amount of time a member is authorized to be on a Temporary Disabled Retirement List (TDRL)?
• Which system would you use to generate reports on demand or on a monthly basis?
• Which office reviews the initial RILO in the DES process?
• Who develops and assigns a unit task code (UTC) according to the DoD?
• Which form is titled 'Request for Purchase' and used to initiate procurements in the Air Force?
• The three types of line of duty determinations are informal, formal, and
• How many distinct support tiers are used in the help desk environment?
• The schedule hold duration parameter defines how much time will elapse before
• Who is eligible to initiate a decoration recommendation?
• A CHCS admission notification letter is generated each time which type of patient is admitted to the MTF?
• AF Form 1488 is used for which purpose?
• Who is in the best position to see how funds are being expended in their responsibility center?
• Who has overall authority and responsibility for conducting all incident activities including development of strategies and distribution of resources at the incident site?
• The anatomical term "peripheral" refers to something
• Recovery care coordinator (RCC) and Wounded Warrior advocates are typically assigned to seriously wounded, ill, or injured service members whose medical conditions are expected to last at least how many days?
• Subcutaneous tissue
• When may the military branch pay for the travel of the patient's next of kin (NOK)?
• Which flight takes care of the manpower and budget for the medical squadron?
• In MRDSS, what tool is designed to manage the AFMS readiness resources?
• Which glands control body functions by producing hormones?
• What is not a more common Air Force achievement awards?
• Which of the following is a valid consent authorizing the release of a dependent husband's medical record information to an insurance company?
• What is the primary role of the BCAC?
• Medical personnel must comply with several acts, including the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act. Which of the following is the correct full title for a privacy-related act listed?
• An Airman should be referred to the deployment availability working group (DAWG) if a mobility restriction goes over how many days?
• Who may initiate a recommendation for a decoration?
• On AF Form 2100, where is the medical records tracking label placed to ensure proper tracking?
• Who is responsible for assessing the 'mission ready' status of their unit, assigned unit type codes (UTC), and assigned personnel?
• Which type of condition is not eligible for referral to the DES?
• Which party is notified via the admission notification letter when a military patient is admitted to an MTF?
• Patient's requiring rest during a long aeromedical evacuation (AE) flight because of recent surgery should be classified as
• Which principle focuses on rapid decision-making with flat structures and no intermediate levels?
• Which form is used to notify third-party liability for medical care?
• What priority is assigned to a patient who should be evacuated as soon as possible and within a maximum of one hour?
• Who approves the activation or inactivation of a designated aeromedical staging facility (ASF) or the partial curtailment of the mission assigned to an ASF?
• Permanent decertification is documented on which form?
• On a military map, what color represents main roads, built-up areas, and special features?
• Which of the following is included in the admissions and dispositions record to reflect all relevant events?
• TRAC2ES stands for which of the following?
• Which method is preferred for routine PHI disclosure to a lawyer?
• A member may be permanently retired when the member has
• Which lodging percentage can be authorized by the sponsoring unit for conferences?
• What is the term for a request to increase the UMD authorization that must be accompanied by a proposal for offsetting reductions from elsewhere?
• What code set describes medical, surgical, and diagnostic services and is designed to communicate uniform information?
• What two convenient tools can you find on TRICARE.mil?
• Which item listed below is not part of the anti-hijacking search?
• The Veterans Tracking Application is which of the following?
• When was the medical squadron model implemented?
• Which part of the deployment folder is for MAJCOM/installation/wing/unit requirements?
• Who does the unit deployment manager (UDM) notify for remedial actions when unit task codes (UTC) cannot be supported due to changes in manpower or equipment?
• MRDSS stands for which system?
• The interim line of duty (LOD) for reserve members is valid for no more than how many days?
• What two purposes does the user record serve?
• Which organization maintains various checklists relating to inspectable areas?
• Which organizational principle focuses on accomplishing wartime tasks without reorganizing?
• Which statement about Air Force military treatment facility models is accurate?
• The prefix meaning "within" is
• A form used Air Force-wide or by more than one MAJCOM is classified as which category?
• Who appoints the medical treatment facility (MTF) Personnel Reliability Program (PRP)/Presidential Support Program (PSP) monitor
• What is the three-tier rating system in the ART?
• Patient register numbers are assigned in numerical sequence until which event occurs?
• After the evaluee has been informed of the MEB findings, how many days does the member have to request an impartial review?
• What classification is given to non-medical attendants flying in the aeromedical evacuation (AE) System?
• Who would not be eligible to perform an inventory of patient valuables?
• All codes in the International Classification of Diseases, 10th Revision, Clinical Modification are:
• The dimensions of stowed baggage for aeromedical evacuation patients must not exceed
• DOC stands for what phrase?
• What should outpatient records personnel do with medical paperwork missing the required minimum identification documentation?
• Which tissue is described as providing extra fuel for the body?
• What does MRTR2 stand for?
• Smooth muscle are found in most of the body's
• When utilizing resource support, who may request a task order for personnel, equipment, maintenance, and supplies?
• If convalescent leave is directed, the inpatient record is?
• Which structure is primarily used for gas exchange in respiration?
• Under the stripes for exceptional performers program (STEP) program, no airman may be promoted more than once during any 12-month period under any combination of promotion programs except
• Inhaling and exhaling result mainly from contractions of the
• A category I discrepancy is classified as
• Who may authorize a patient disposition?
• The admissions and dispositions report is a daily report of
• Which form is the Patient Evacuation Tag?
• How often are active duty records inventoried?
• Which group is trained to augment or offset dwindling active duty manpower in support of the Total Air Force and national objectives?
• Which term describes the obligation to reimburse the government for loss, damage, or destruction of government property due to negligence?
• Which term means "toward the outside of the body"?
• Which system consolidates a facility's expense, workload, and personnel data into a single report?
• Block 33 on AF Form 560 records which data?
• What is the abbreviation for "twice a night"?
• In the AE process, which organization assigns a cite number to the regulating request?
• Which agency uses line of duty (LOD) determinations to determine eligibility for physical disability retirement?
• The MEPRS information is routinely channeled to which person or agency?
• Individuals who have been designated the authority to order, receive and sign for equipment material in writing by the medical group commander are
• An enlisted performance report (EPR) will have at least how many evaluators?
• Which entity owns outpatient records?
• What triage category would include injuries that need immediate medical or surgical attention to save a life?
• What does CHCS stand for?
• What is the timeframe of the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) life cycle?
• In CHCS, the system supports tracking patient care and which other category?
• What is defined as termination of active duty status and transfer or reversion to a reserve component not on active duty, including transfer to the individual ready reserve (IRR)?
• What does the acronym SNIAC stand for?
• Within the MTF, who is the functional champion of TRICARE online (TOL)?
• Which document requires signatures from board members and the approval authority during the MEB process?
• Which roster shows authorized positions, including position numbers, AFSC, and FAC?
• Which term describes the main digestive tract from mouth to anus?
• What is the command authority that may be exercised by commanders at any echelon at or below the level of combatant command?
• What does PRP stand for?
• Which below does not constitute potentially disqualifying information (PDI)?
• Who performs a quality review before CMA review?
• After you finish reviewing a record for PDI, what is the next step?
• Which authority issues the appointing orders for MEB members?
• Which automated self-inspection tool is used by AFMS MTFs?
• Which abbreviation is used for both ears?
• Where is allergy information displayed on a patient's health record?
• Which statement best describes the outpatient record filing system?
• What is the official system of record for management of expeditionary medical personnel and resources for the Air Force Medical Service (AFMS)?
• Which form is not one of the substantiating documents used with the BAS program?
• Which role is essential to attend the deployment order briefing at minimum?
• After the risk assessment, what determines if a patient with questionable eligibility is treated in the military treatment facility?
• Which DAWG disposition terminates the process without disability retirement?
• Which vessel carries blood away from the heart?
• Who may request a task order for resources in the context of resource support?
• MEDEVAC is typically associated with which type of aircraft?
• Which classification describes a patient who is able to walk and travel without a litter?
• What is the purpose of the link between CHCS and DEERS?
• Sensory neurons carry informations
• On the Training Overview Page, which action updates an individual's training information?
• Within the Unit Manpower Document, which code identifies a specific work center controlled by HQ USAF?
• Which policy dictates the discharge clearance process for patients at a military treatment facility?
• What best describes the duration of one Air and Space Expeditionary Force life cycle?
• What is the correct approach to handling an 'old' PDI during PRP evaluation?
• Which document is used to indicate the sponsor's record is not present at out-processing?
• Personnel information file (PIF) contents are available to everyone except which entity?
• The anatomical term "external" refers to something
• Category one designates positions that are in direct support of the President of the United States and are filled on what basis?
• What is the maximum duration of a PRP suspension?
• Which inpatient record form is used to transmit the physician's instructions to the nursing staff?
• Permanent decertification is not required when a member
• Which form is not among the BAS substantiating documents?
• Which muscle is primarily responsible for breathing by changing thoracic volume?
• Which document should be reviewed to confirm that a change has taken effect after submission?
• Death on arrival describes a patient who dies at which point?
• What form is used to initiate a medical affirmative claims case by the staff judge advocate?
• Medical personnel must comply with the Privacy Act, FOIA, HIPAA, Drug Abuse Offense and Treatment Act, and which other amendments?
• Which statement describes the effect of signing the release certificate?
• Who pays for claims for network care by military treatment facility (MTF) enrolled patients?
• Which action should be taken before registering a new patient to avoid duplication in CHCS?
• Which patient would still receive routine medical care, even if they failed a Defense Enrollment Eligibility System (DEERS) eligibility check?
• If a record must be transferred from one clinic to another, who is responsible for changing the location of the record on the AF Form 250, Health Record Charge Out Request?
• Which type describes a report of an Airman's injury or illness that describes specific activities or functions to avoid to allow recovery or reduce risk of further injury?
• What is the most important customer service skill? (alternative wording)
• Which is an example of non-verbal communication? (alternative wording)
• Which CHCS component is a pattern of timeslots that is specific to a provider but is not linked to any particular date?
• At minimum, who attends the deployment order briefing?
• Routine care is usually not provided to patients with questionable eligibility until the
• What are examples of non-sensitive PII?
• The objective of the medical affirmative claims program is to assist which party in recovering the cost of medical care caused by a third party?
• What is involved at every echelon in the administration of an appropriation warrant?
• Outpatient records are the property of the
• Which is an example of non-verbal communication?
• If a physician determines that a direct disclosure of medical information to the patient could have an adverse effect on the health or safety of the individual, which is an appropriate course of action?
• The main part of the digestive system is the
• What is a responsibility of the Physical Evaluation Board liaison Officer (PEBLO)?
• What funding structure, mandated by the defense health agency, must MTF commanders, resource management personnel, and flight commanders review and manage?
• DRRS stands for what?
• The name of the attending physician entered on the AF Form 3899 is the
• What is the key to the success of TRICARE?
• What does PRP stand for?
• What classification is given to medical attendants flying in the aeromedical evacuation (AE) system?
• Which form is not used as a BAS substantiating document?
• Which report gives a detailed view of expenses processed through the EAS?
• What is the response time for trouble/work orders when the level is elevated?
• In the context of designee status for an abused family member, who has approval authority after sponsor discharge?
• A MAJCOM or FOA issues what type of forms for use within the organization and subordinate organizations?
• AWOL is assigned when a member has an unauthorized absence exceeding how long?
• Final progress notes on SF 509 may be substituted for narrative summaries for all of the following patients except
• ART stands for what?
• What cannot be a subdivision of a wing?
• Which priority corresponds to Routine evacuation?
• Which term describes releasing protected health information to an authorized user?
• What is the primary purpose of the Veterans Tracking Application?
• What is the typical response time for trouble/work orders when the escalation level is elevated?
• Which category of personnel is trained to augment dwindling active duty manpower under Total Air Force objectives?
• MSgt eligibility after becoming a 7 level, which TIG and TAFMS values are correct?
• Who is financially accountable for care regardless of where it is delivered?
• What information system does Theater Medical Information Program-Joint (TMIP-J) transfer so it can be viewed by authorized healthcare providers all over the world?
• Which term means "outward from the center of the body"?
• Which code set is described as communicating uniform information about medical, surgical, and diagnostic services?
• What is the second step if you have identified suspicious mail?
• Of the reports listed below, what is not a TRICARE Operations Center Report?
• You suspend a member from the PRP when reliability is
• Which program aggregates data and measures daily transmission and completeness from source data collection systems?
• Once the change request has been submitted, what do you check to ensure the change has been made?
• When are outpatient records for nonmilitary, dependents, and retired military members retired?
• Which information system application is the Air Force Medical Service intranet site?
• Which entry is not acceptable for block 21 of AF Form 560 (Current Organization)?
• What is not necessarily a consideration for a hardship voluntary separation?
• Which of the following is not included in the admission package that accompanies a patient to the inpatient unit?
• Which CHCS option would you choose to modify the number of available slots for a provider on a given day?
• When was the medical squadron model implemented? (alternative wording)
• CHCS reports designed for a specific purpose by military treatment facility personnel are called
• Who prepares AF form 788 (series) folders for filing inpatient documentation?
• What is the official website for TRICARE?
• Information that may affect a patient's morale, character, medical progress, or mental health is considered
• The Veterans Tracking Application is hosted on which portal?
• All of the following items need to be prepared for the aeromedical evacuation flight, except which item?
• Which DoD automated system is used for patient registration, appointment scheduling, and patient scheduling?
• Copies of inpatient care documents are filed in what section of the AF Form 2100A, Health Record-Outpatient?
• Arhtr(o) is the root word meaning
• In a military hospital, which role may authorize a patient disposition?
• Which type of publication is an example of a nondirective publication?
• Emergency leave is described as which of the following?
• When a health care provider decides to report a patient in casualty status, the appropriate entry is made on which form?
• Who is responsible for reviewing back order lists, evaluating stock supply levels, and inventorying all equipment within their responsibility?
• In a grid coordinate like 4.1/G.6, the 4 indicates which grid element?
• If the impartial reviewer finds that the review does not support the medical evaluation board (MEB) findings, the reviewer should contact the
• Who appoints the trusted agents for issuing and ensuring member notification to provide a urine sample?
• Within an MTF, which unit is primarily responsible for MEPRS data management?
• Locating and clearing discrepancies between the resource advisor's record and the official accounting records occurs during the triannual review of the
• What is the primary role of the Beneficiary Counseling Assistance Coordinator (BCAC)?
• Which form serves as the Medical Record—Narrative Summary?
• Which entry format is correct for a patient's name during CHCS Registration?
• Into which office is the AF Form 577 turned when a patient's clearance is complete?
• Deserter status can be assigned if a member is absent for less than 30 days and
• Monthly promotion increments are posted on or about which day of the month after AFPC transactions?
• When an airman will not be allowed to assume the next higher grade, the commander's written notice must include the reasons for the non-recommendation, inclusive dates of the non-recommendation action, and
• Recommended convalescent leave must be approved by which person?
• Positions to which individuals are assigned duties on a permanent or full-time basis in direct support of the President of the United States are called
• What is the first step in completing a checklist?
• Which form initiates a purchase and allows contracting to issue a contract and the financial service office to set aside funds for the requirement?
• All of the following are authorized litters for aeromedical evacuation, except the
• Where are copies of inpatient care documents filed within AF Form 2100A, Health Record-Outpatient?
• Which option is not a type of military treatment facility (MTF)?
• What patient movement requirement center (PMRC) is located at Scott Air Force Base (AFB)?
• Which update frequency is a minimum requirement for ART?
• How should entries in the medical record pertaining to medical affirmative claims cases be stamped?
• Who has the authority to deny a request for reinvestigation of line of duty findings?
• Which FMP prefix is assigned to a new spouse after a sponsor's divorce and remarriage?
• What is the standard form used to document the Medical Board findings?
• What does PMRC stand for in the context of patient movement?
• AF Form 3066 is used to document which item?
• The Composite Health Care System (CHCS) allows MTF personnel to track patient care and
• Which organizational unit is headed by an officer or supervisor who is responsible for management or resources in the unit and, in most instances, can significantly influence the expenses incurred by the unit?
• Which DAWG disposition represents a temporary disability retirement?
• Which AE phase provides airlift for patients between points within the battlefield and between battlefield and subsequent treatment within the combat zone?
• What level of organization usually has between 1,000 to 5,000 personnel?
• In ICD-9-CM, a code beginning with the letter 'E' means?
• What is the proper sequence for setting up a provider's schedule in CHCS?
• Which option is not among the five organizational principles?
• The admissions and dispositions report provides a daily record of which items?
• Which statement best describes a key characteristic of prime vendors?
• If a divorced sponsor remarries, the new spouse's family member prefix (FMP) will be
• What does TMIP-J stand for?
• Which policy dictates the discharge clearance process for patients at a military treatment facility?
• In the WAPS, what two weighted factors account for 44 percent of the total point value?
• Which term describes the cells that carry oxygen throughout the body?
• Digestion begins in the
• Who has review and approval authority over the AF Form 618, Medical Board Report?
• The suffix "-penia" means
• Which statement about prime vendors is true?
• Block 38 on AF Form 560 is used to identify which information?
• The following are all types of servers except which?
• Which entity is typically above a Wing in the Air Force hierarchy?
• In the weighted airman promotion system (WAPS), time in grade (TIG) is computed at the rate of
• What does CHCS stand for in medical records context?
• Which body system breaks down food into nutrients that can be used as fuel?
• Which statement best describes the endocrine system?
• Which form is not among the BAS substantiating documents?
• In-processing a beneficiary includes which of the following?
• Which of the following is NOT considered part of the lymphatic system in a certain region?
• Which statement describes the delivery timeframe commonly associated with prime vendors?
• What year did Congress establish the first hospital?
• Who is the non-clinical benefits advisor to the member while going through the Integrated Disability Evaluation System (IDES)?
• Who is primarily responsible for managing MEPRS within the military treatment facility (MTF)?
• Why is it important to check the Mission Document for the flight?
• An AF Form 469 and AF Form 422 are good for a maximum of how many days?
• Which rank is the STEP exception that allows promotion more than once in 12 months?
• Which body is typically responsible for overseeing incident operations during an incident on the installation?
• Which of the following is not a minimum requirement to update ART?
• Who is responsible for appointing the MTF PRP/PSP monitor?
• What term describes a unit's resource management authority that can significantly influence expenses?
• If there is PDI of a medical nature on the PRP questionnaire, where must this be documented?
• Which statement is not a responsibility for the Debt Collection Assistance Officer (DCAO)?
• When a patient is in remain overnight (RON) status, on which form should the evaluation, treatment and medication be documented?
• An inventory of patient valuables is conducted
• All of the lymph flows into either the thoracic duct or which structure?
• Which NDAA-related statement is accurate?
• What C-level states the unit possesses the required resources and is trained to undertake the full wartime mission for which it is organized or designed?
• What is the primary purpose of a release certificate, which is signed by the patient when he or she desires to be released from the aeromedical evacuation (AE) system of his or her own free will?
• What is the tactical use of aircraft or forces in a desired area of operation, and is the actual use of forces within a combat zone or an objective area?
• Who ultimately receives MEPRS information at the DoD level?
• Which option expresses the relationship between prime vendors and the Defense Logistics Agency (DLA)?
• In which situation would a letter of evaluation (LOE) not be mandatory?
• What method is used to track when patients are away from the ward?
• Which capability is not available in the Theater Medical Information Program-Joint (TMIP-J)?
• Who from the following list is not required to attend the deployment availability working group (DAWG)?
• Which of the following is not one of the three basic elements of the TOC?
• If hours need to be changed after a project is closed, whom does the MEPRS program manager contact?
• DD Form 2138 is used for which purpose?
• Permanently changing assignment to another squadron without the gaining unit initiating a new AF Form 286 is called?
• AF Form 788 filing criterion relies on which identifier?
• When must notification to HQ AF/SGXO be accomplished for active duty flag officers admitted to an MTF?
• Which gland is referred to as the 'master gland'?
• If direct disclosure could harm the patient, to whom may the information be released according to policy?
• Which form documents the PDI on the PRP questionnaire?
• A properly developed and maintained terminal digit filing system makes it easier to
• Each kidney contains about a million microscopic filtering units called?
• The baggage dimension maximum for aeromedical evacuation is which of the following?
• What assignment limitation code (ALC) is for members who should no be deployed or assigned away from specialty medical capability required to manage their unique medical condition?
• Who appoints an officer to serve as the Patient Squadron commander?
• What is the first step to take in DMHRSI when inprocessing a member?
• Which statement most accurately describes a defining feature of prime vendors?
• About how many bones does an adult have?
• A concise clinical summary is dictated and typed on SF 502, Medical Record—Narrative Summary, for
• If a budget shows negative funds available for obligation, which outcome occurs?
• Which of the following is not an input used for accessing help in the Composite Health Care System (CHCS)?
• If you notice that a patient valuables have been lost, who do you have to immediately notify?
• The end item of medical equipment that has a unit cost of between $3,300 and $250,000, a life expectancy of at least 5 years, and maintains its identity during use is classified as
• What AFMS objective focuses on appropriate utilization of people and resources applied through effective management?
• Red blood cells are also known as
• Which of the following is a valid consent authorizing the release of a dependent husband's medical record information to an insurance company?
• For sponsors on unaccompanied assignments, a family member clearance screening is accomplished by the
• Which report provides a detailed picture of the expenses processed through EAS?
• What is the enlisted performance reports (EPR) conversion factor?
• Which step is not part of in-processing a beneficiary?
• The prefix meaning "within" is which?
• Which act is primarily concerned with protecting health information privacy?
• Which term best matches the scenario of leaving active duty and moving to a reserve component?
• Which system is used in acute hospital environments to capture point-of-care data at the bedside from physiological devices?
• Who can be voting member(s) on the medical evaluation board?
• In which section of AF Form 2100A, Health Record-Outpatient, is the DD Form 2005, Privacy Act Statement filed?
• A situation describing an erroneous certification occurs when the gaining unit did not initiate a new AF Form 286 after a PCA.
• The sponsoring unit can authorize lodging allowance up to what percent of the local lodging per diem rate for conferences?
• Once AFPC/DPANM reviews an initial RILO, how do they notify the physical evaluation board liaison officer (PEBLO) of the determination?
• An inpatient record of an Air Force Staff Sergeant admitted on 28 Dec 98 and dispositioned on 4 Jan 99 (no other inpatient episodes) at a facility with an inpatient records library is
• Which combination lists internal memory components?
• Who is the evaluation forwarded to upon completion?
• A CHCS admission notification letter is generated each time
• What is not an action a PAC worksheet can communicate to the CSS?
• A patient requiring the use of restraining apparatus, sedation, and close supervision at all times should be classified as
• What is the final step of completing the quarters notification form?
• Generally, how are the applications for designee status submitted?
• What type treatment facility model is the most common in the Air Force?
• What is the best choice for ensuring that accountable containers remain in a controlled environment?
• The statutory obligation of an individual to reimburse the government for loss, damage, or destruction of government property arising from his or her negligence is defined as what?
• What document is a by-name roster reflecting authorized positions, position numbers, AFSC, and FAC?
• What is an authorized disposition the deployment availability working group (DAWG) can make?
• Which triage category indicates injuries that require immediate attention?
• When a patient's condition is so severe that there is imminent danger to life, which patient category is reported?
• What does PPBE stand for in the planning and budgeting context?
• Motor-neurons carry information in which direction?
• PRP suspension can initially be made for up to 30 days and can be extended to a maximum of 120 days.
• When must the cost center managers have in order to operate their cost center?
• When advising a patient on TRICARE plan options, the first factor to assess is the plan's suitability based on what?
• What is the AF Form 250 used for?
• If for some reason the sponsor's medical record is not present at the time of out-processing, give the individual a
• Which award is abbreviated as AFOR?
• Allocation notices are generated through which system?
• The first hospital established by Congress was founded in which year?
• In the National Defense Authorization Act, how often will the subtitles and sections change?
• When the providing care manager reviews the compensation and pension (C&P) results, and does not note any inconsistencies, what should the PCM do?
• During the editing process, addressing phrases such as: final completion, month of August, or close proximity, is an example of
• Who is authorized to appoint trusted agents to coordinate urine sample collection within a unit?
• How long or when does the Wounded Warrior Program work with the service member and the medical team to develop a comprehensive recovery plan?
• What should you first consider when helping a patient narrow down the right TRICARE plan for them?
• Which form is not one of the substantiating documents used with the BAS program?
• What time frame should an event log cover?
• Which level below the Wing is a group?
• Which section of AF Form 2100A, Health Record-Outpatient, are living wills (Self-Determination Act forms) filed?
• What personnel data system (PDS) status code identifies a re-evaluate for temporary duty (TDY)?
• What will dictate the clearance process for patients being discharged from your MTF?
• What is the appropriate response when calling another office?
• Which laws take precedence over other directives pertaining to access and release of medical information?
• What personnel data system (PDS) status code identifies a certified control?
• Which of the following is not a listed AE patient category?
• For permanent retirement consideration, the disability must be what?
• AF Form 286A is used to document what PRP action?
• Which system consolidates a military treatment facility's expense, workload, and personnel data into a single report?
• The official program that summarizes the secretary of defense approved plans and programs for the DOD is called
• Who requests an individual to be reinstated or requalified from permanent decertification/disqualification in PRP?
• Which information systems application serves as the Air Force Medical Service intranet site?
• What does the ICAO code written to the left of the red cross on the DD Form 600 represent?
• The end item of medical equipment with a unit cost between 3,300 and 250,000 and a minimum five-year life is classified as which category?
• When must the attending physician accomplish the medical history and physical examination?
• What priority is assigned to a patient who should be evacuated within 24 hours?
• Which individual is also a focal point that Theater Patient Movement Requirements Centers (TPMRC) personnel can contact for questions concerning a patient's movement?
• Which branch is not involved in the Integrated DES?
• Which statement best describes the utility of the terminal digit filing approach?
• When patients are admitted from the clinic, who completes the circled items of AF Form 560?
• What is the Air Force's war planning system?
• What order is issued by a competent authority for reimbursement of expenses incident to official travel?
• Who is responsible for maintaining the necessary patient valuables records and protecting the security of the valuables accepted for safekeeping?